SPOILER
In this analysis, I want to emphasize a very significant point for me, where Socrates argues: “Either I have not a bad influence, or it is unintentional; so in either case what you claim is false.” He simply says that if he corrupts the youth, he would harm society. If he harms society, he would harm himself. Since no one harms themselves intentionally, there is no way he did this on purpose, and if it was unintentional, he should have warned, he should not be at the courthouse. I believe, this particular passage is very important since Socrates states every crime is inherently unintentional but does it mean they shouldn’t be punished?
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Is the question at the end of the writing answered in this book? Or are you asking the readers to prove the readability of the book?
Zülal
Gönderi Sahibi
Firstly, thank you for reading. The book is about Socrates’ trial. Athens accuses Socrates of corrupting the youth and impiety. The little passage I quoted was what Socrates argues when he was charged with corrupting the youth. He says if he corrupted the youth, he would harm society, thus himself. Then, he concludes if he did so, it must be unintentional, and cannot be charged because of it. After I read, I thought every crime must be unintentional according to Socrates, and asked myself, does that mean we shouldn’t punish criminals? I still think about it, I wanted to see other readers’ comments.